NTS-SAT-18 X S4 1 of 48

NTS-SAT-18 X S4 1 of 48

«& kulkkt sðkçk ÏÞk Ãknu kt Lke[uLke Mkq[Lkkyku æþklkúke ðkt[ku. ík{khk sðkçk ík{lku ykãku e MktÞwõík W khãkrºkfk WÃkh ¾ðkLkk Au : 1. {nuhçkklke fhelku ík{khku fuÿ Mktfuíkktf ylku ykmklk {ktf ytf{kt MÃküÃkýu ¾ku. (yuf [kuhmk{kt yuf s ytf íku {wsçk) ík{khku ykmklk {ktf ÏÞk Ãknu kt íku çkhkuçkh Au íkulke ¾kíkhe fhku. fkueãký ¾kLkwt ¾k e Lk hnu íkulke fk S ku. «& ÃkwÂMíkfk ylku W khãkwâmíkfk WÃkhLkk [kuhmk{kt ykmklk {ktf ylku fuÿ Mktfuíkktf{ktLkku «íþuf ytf ylku þqlþ Ãký ÞkuøÞ søþkyu ¾ku. WËknhýkÚko : 2. Ëhuf «& Lku yuf økwý Au. 3. çk½k s «& ku Wfu ðk ykð~þf nkuðkúke W khku ¾ðk Ãknu kt MktÃkqýo «& Ãkrºkfk ðkt[ðklkku ykøkún hk¾þku Lkrn. 4. Ãknu k «& Úke þyykík fhku ylku yuf ÃkAe yuf «& Wfu íkk se ytík MkwÄe fk{ fhku. 5. yufkëk «& Lkku W kh Lk ykðzu íkku íkulke ÃkkA ðäw Mk{Þ çkhçkkë Lk fhþku. ykøk Lkku «& Wfu ku. çkäk «& ku Ãkíke økþk ÃkAe Mk{Þ çkkfe nþu íkku hne økþu k «& ku ytøku ík{u Vhe rð[kh fhe þfþku. 6. «& Wfu ðk {kxu ík{lku { íkku Mk{Þ yufë{ Úkkuzku Au. íkuúke Mk{ÞLkku ðäw{kt ðäw Mkkhe heíku WÃkÞkuøk fhku. fk[wt fk{ Ëhuf ÃkkLkkLke Lke[u ykãku [ku¾xk{kt s fhðklkwt Au. 7. æþklk{kt hk¾ku fu ík{khu sðkçkku W kh ÃkrºkfkLkk þk uþ ûk{íkk Ãkheûkk (SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST) yk rð¼køk{kt s LkkUÄðkLkk Au. 8. Ëhuf «& Lkk W kh {kxu «& Ãkrºkfk{kt ÃkÞkoÞ ykãþkt Au. íku{ktúke ík{lku ÞkuøÞ køku íku ÃkÞkoÞLkku {ktf swyku ylku íku {ktflkk ðíkwo {kt fk e þkne ¼heLku sðkçk ykãkku. yk fk{ ík{khe W khãkrºkfk WÃkh ÞkuøÞ «& ykøk fhðklkwt Au. ík{khe «& Ãkrºkfk WÃkh Lknª. 9. {nuhçkklke fhe yk ÃkwÂMíkfk{kt fuÿ Mktfuíkktf ylku ykmklk {ktf íku{s fk[k fk{ rmkðkþ ylþ fkue s ¾ký Lk ¾þku. 10. nðu ík{u sðkçk ykãkðklke þyykík fhku. NTS-SAT-18 X S4 2 of 48

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be given on the separate answer-sheet. 1. Please write your Centre Code and Seat No. very clearly (only one digit in one block). Before writing your Seat No. get it ascertaine from the Centre Conductor. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing in the Centre Code and Seat No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the booklet and on the answer sheet. Example : For all subsequent purposes your Centre Code and Seat No. shall remain the same. Centre once alloted will not be changed 2. All questions carry one mark each. 3. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to answer it. 4. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after another till you finish. 5. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again. 6. Since the time alloted is very short you should make best use of it. The rough work is to be done in the box given under each page. 7. Remember you have to mark on your answers in Scholastic Aptitude Test answer-sheet only. 8. Answer to each question is to be indicated in the answer-sheet by encircling with black pen provided to you in the appropriate number of alternative in the answer-sheet from amongst the ones given for the corresponding question in the test booklet. 9. Do not write anything except Centre Code, Seat No. and rough work anywhere in this booklet. 10. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions. NTS-SAT-18 X S4 3 of 48

þk klke ûk{íkk fmkkuxe 1. Ãk]ÚðeLkk økwyíðeþ «ðuøklkwt {wõþ MkkiÚke ðäw... Au. (1) ÄúwðÃkh (2) rð»kwðð] kãkh (3) Ãk]ÚðeLkk Ãk]c¼køkÚke 60 km ŸzkEyu (4) Ãk]ÚðeLkk Ãk]c¼køkÚke 400 km Ÿ[kRyu 2.... {ktúke ÃkMkkh ÚkLkkh ðes«ðknlku eäu WíÃkÒk ÚkLkkh [wtçkfeþ ûkuºk [wtçkfãkèelku eäu íkiþkh Úkíkk [wtçkfeþ ûkuºk «{kýu s nkuþ Au. (1) rðãwík ðknf íkkhlkwt økwt[ w (2) rðãwík ðknf íkkhlke tçk[kuhmk h[lkk (3) ÃkrhLkkr fk (4) íkktçkklkk òzk íkkh 3. «fkþlkwt ð e¼ðlk Lkk MktçktrÄík fþw ðkõþ ¾kuxwt Au íku þkuäku. (1) íkkhklkwt x{x{ðwt (2) MkqqÞkuoËÞ ylku MkqÞkoMík Mk{Þu MkqÞoLkku ykfkh tçkøkku Úkðku. (3) Ãkkýe{kt ðmíkwlkku ykfkh {kuxku ÚkkÞ yuðwt køkðwt. (4) fk[lkk ku f{ktúke k htøklkk «fkþ rfhýkulkwt rðrfhý Úkðwt. 4. òu WÃkøkúnLkku ðuøk 3.14 km/s ylku ¼qÃk]»XÚke Ÿ[kE 3600 km nkuþ íkku WÃkøkúnLku yuf «Ërûkýk Ãkqýo fhðk {kxu fux ku Mk{Þ køkþu? (Ãk]ÚðeLke rºkßþk 6400 km) (1) 2000 S (2) 20000 S (3) 1000 S (4) 10000 S 5. {k[o Úke {u yk Ëhr{ÞkLk MkqÞkoÃkkMkqLk MkhkMkhe 140 Ëþ ûk km (million km) ytíkh ÃkhLkk økúnu 160 0 fûkk{ktúke rðmúkkãklk fþwo. òu íku økún ykìõxkuçkh Úke rzmkubçkh yk Mk{Þ ËhBÞkLk 10 0 fûkk{kúke rðmúkkãklk fhu íkku íku økúnlkw yk Mk{Þ Ëhr{ÞkLkLkwt MkhkMkhe ytíkh... Au. 5 6 (1) 56 10 km (2) 56 10 km 7 8 (3) 56 10 km (4) 56 10 km NTS-SAT-18 X S4 4 of 48

Scholastic Aptitude Test 1. Value of acceleration due to gravity on earth is maximum at... (1) poles (2) equator (3) depth of 60 km below earth s surface (4) height of 400 km above earth s surface 2. Magnetic field due to current through a... is similar to magnetic field produced by a bar magnet. (1) circular loop of conducting wire (2) rectangular loop of conducting wire (3) solenoid (4) thick copper wire 3. Choose the wrong statement related to refraction of light (1) Twinkling of stars (2) Oval shape of sun in morning and evening (3) Object in water appears bigger in size (4) Red light undergoes dispersion, while passing through prism 4. How much time the satellite will take to complete one revolution around the earth, if velocity of satellite is 3.14 km/s and its height above earth s surface is 3600 km. (Radius of earth is 6400 km) (1) 2000 S (2) 20000 S (3) 1000 S (4) 10000 S 5. A planet in an orbit sweeps out an angle of 160 0 from March - May, When it is at an average distance of 140 million km from sun. If the planet sweeps out an angle of 10 0 from October - December, then the average distance from sun is... 5 6 (1) 56 10 km (2) 56 10 km 7 8 (3) 56 10 km (4) 56 10 km NTS-SAT-18 X S4 5 of 48

6. Lke[u ykãku fkuxklkwt rlkheûký fhku ylku òuzfkt òuze ÞkuøÞ ÃkÞkoÞ þkuäku. Míkt¼ I Míkt¼ II A (i) yktíkøkkuo ð fk[úke { íke «rík{k B (ii) 2F ytíkhãkh hk¾u ÃkËkÚkoLke çkrnøkkuo ð fk[ îkhk { íke «rík{k C D B (iii) 2F Lke Ãku e çkksw hk¾u ÃkËkÚkoLke çkrnøkkuo fk[îkhk { íke «rík{k (iv) Lkkr¼Þ ytíkh fhíkkt ykuak ytíkhãkh hk¾u ÃkËkÚkoLke çkrnøkkuo ð fk[ îkhk { íke «rík{k (Míkt¼ I {kt, AB - fk[lkku {wïþ Ähe, O - ÃkËkÚko çkëw, I «rík{k çkëw) (1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (2) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii) (3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) (4) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii) 7. 5 kg ÿôþ{klklkk ÃkkýeLkwt íkkãk{klk 20 0 C Úke 100 0 C MkwÄe ðäkhðk {kxu fux e sq W»ýíkk ykãkðe Ãkzþu? (1) 1672 KJ (2) 167200 J (3) 16720 J (4) 1672 J 8. yuf «fkþlkwt rfhý fk[lkk ku f ABC Ãkh Ãkzu Au. (AB = AB) ylku ykf]rík{kt ËþkoÔÞk «{kýu «ðkmk fhu Au. òu fk[lkku nðk MkkÃkuûk ð e¼ðlkktf 1.5 Au. íkku Sin r þkuäku. (1) 3 2 (2) 3 2 2 (3) 2 3 (4) 2 2 3 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 6 of 48

6. Observing the following table, choose the correct alternative Column I Column II A (i) Image formed by concave lens B (ii) Image formed by convex lens with object at 2F C (iii) Image formed by convex lens with object beyond 2 F D B (iv) Image formed by convex lens with object within focal length In Column I AB - principal axis of lens, O - point object, I - point image. Match the two Columns. (1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (2) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii) (3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) (4) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii) 7. How much heat energy in Joules is necessary to raise the temperature of 5 kg of water from 20 0 to 100 0? (1) 1672 KJ (2) 167200 J (3) 16720 J (4) 1672 J 8. A ray falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels as shown in figure. If refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5, find Sin r (1) 3 2 (2) 3 2 2 (3) 2 3 (4) 2 2 3 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 7 of 48

18 9. nur Þ{ ðkþw rðãwl{ku[ Lk efklkk ykzauë{ktúke Ëhuf MkUfzLku zkçkeçkkswúke s{ýeçkkswyu 40 10 He (ykþlk) ðnu Au, íku s Mk{Þu s{ýeçkkswúke zkçke çkkswyu n sux k E uõxùkulmk ðnu Au. òu Lkr fk{klkku rðãwík «ðkn s{ýe rëþkyu 8 A sux ku nþu íkku n =? 18 (1) 3 10 19 (2) 3 10 20 (3) 3 10 21 (4) 3 10 10....WÃkfhý rðãwík QòoLkwt YÃkktíkh Þktrºkf Qòo{kt fhu Au. I rðãwík srlkºk III ÔnkuÕx {exh II rðãwík {kuxh IV yì {exh (1) I ylku II (2) II ylku III (3) II, III ylku IV (4) II Võík 11. yuf ÃkËkÚkoLkwt çkšnð fk[lku eäu ÃkzËk ÃkhLkk «rík{klke rðãkw íkk 1 2 ÚkkÞ Au. òu fk[ ÃkËkÚkoÚke 30cm ytíkhúke Ëqh E sðk{kt ykðu íkku «rík{klke rðãkw íkk 2 ÚkkÞ Au íkku íku fk[lkwt Lkkr¼Þ ytíkh... Au. (1) 20 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 35 cm 12. çku MkÃkkx yhemkkykulku (x 0 ) Lkk ¾qýu hk¾íkkt yuf çkëwlke 5 «rík{kyku íkiþkh ÚkkÞ Au. ßÞkhu (x 0 ) ¾qýku (x-30) 0 Úke ykuaku fhðk{kt ykðu íkku { íke «rík{kykulke MktÏÞk... ykðþu. (1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 8 of 48

9. In a Helium gas discharge tube every second 18 40 10 He (ions) move towards the right through a cross - section of the tube, while n electrons move to the left in the same time. If the current in the tube is 8A towards right then n =? 18 (1) 3 10 19 (2) 3 10 20 (3) 3 10 21 (4) 3 10 10. Device/devices changing electrical energy into mechanical energy is/are... I Electric generator II Electric motor III Voltmeter IV Ammeter (1) I and II (2) II and III (3) II, III and IV (4) only II 11. A convex lens produces an image of an object on a screen with a magnification of 1 2. When the lens is moved 30 cm away from the object, the magnification of the image is 2. The Focal length of the lens is (1) 20 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 35 cm 12. Two plane mirrors at an angle (x 0 ) produces 5 images of a point. The number of images produced when x 0 is decreased to (x-30) 0 is (1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 9 of 48

13. ÃkkýeLkwt ymktøkík yk[hýlku ËþkoðLkkh ykf]rík (yk u¾)lku ÃkMktË fhku. (1) (2) (3) (4) 14. hk»xùeþ hkmkkþrýf «Þkuøkþk k Ãkwýu (National Chemical Laboratory, Pune) yk «Þkuøkþk klke MÚkkÃkLkk fþk ð»kuo ÚkE? (1) 1950 (2) 1995 (3) 2005 (4) 1989 15. huz ykìõmkkezlkwt hkmkkþrýf Mk{efhý fþwt? (1) Fe 2 O 3 (2) FeO 3 (3) FeO (4) FeO 2 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 10 of 48

13. Choose the correct diagram (graph) showing anomalous behaviour of water. (1) (2) (3) (4) 14. In which year National Chemical laboratory Pune was established? (1) 1950 (2) 1995 (3) 2005 (4) 1989 15. Which is the chemical formula of red oxide? (1) Fe 2 O 3 (2) FeO 3 (3) FeO (4) FeO 2 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 11 of 48

16. s þwrøfhý{kt ^ wrhlklkku ðãkhkþ... íkhefu fhðk{kt ykðu Au. (1) #Äý (2) rðmktðkëf (3) Wí«uhf (4) ûkãkýfkhý 17. fþk rð¼køk{klkk {q ÿôþkulku Mkt {f {q ÿôþku fnu Au? (1) s - rð¼køk (2) p - rð¼køk (3) d- rð¼køk (4) f - rð¼køk 18. ku¾tzlkk fkx hkmkkþrýf Mkqºk... Au. (1) Fe 2 O 3 (2) Fe 2 O 3 H 2 O (3) FeO (4) FeO 2 19. çkkìõmkkex{kt fux k xfk Al 2 O 3 nkuþ Au? (1) 30% Úke 70% (2) 35% Úke 70% (3) 30% Úke 75% (4) 70% Úke 75% 20. f e [qlkklkwt (lime stone) hkmkkþrýf Mkqºk... Au. (1) Ca(OH) 2 (2) CaCO 3 (3) CaCl 2 (4) CCl 4 21. ykõfkuunku Lkwt Mktrûkó h[lkkmkqºk fþwt? (1) OH (2) CHO (3) COOH (4) NH 2 22. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fþk {q ÿôþlku Mk{MÚkkrLkf LkÚke. (1) fkçkolk (2) rlkþkìlk (3) õ kurhlk (4) ykþkuzelk 23. rmkõðh LkkExÙuxLkku Lke[u ykãku fe þkne{kt fhðk{kt ykðu Au? (1) {íkëklklke (2) ¾ðk {kxulke (3) r«lxhlke (4) {kfohlke NTS-SAT-18 X S4 12 of 48

16. In water purification Fullerene is used as.... (1) Fuel (2) Insulator (3) Catalyst (4) Reductant 17. which block elements are called transition elements? (1) S - block (2) P - block (3) D - block (4) F - block 18. What is chemical formula of rust on Iron? (1) Fe 2 O 3 (2) Fe 2 O 3 H 2 O (3) FeO (4) FeO 2 19. What is the percentage of Al 2 O 3 is Bauxite? (1) 30% to 70% (2) 35% to 70% (3) 30% to 75% (4) 70% to 75% 20. Chemical formula of lime stone is.... (1) Ca(OH) 2 (2) CaCO 3 (3) CaCl 2 (4) CCl 4 21. What is the condensed structural formula of alcohol? (1) OH (2) CHO (3) COOH (4) NH 2 22. In which of the following elements does not consist isotopes? (1) Carbon (2) Neon (3) Chlorine (4) Iodine 23. In which of the following ink silver nitrate is used? (1) Voting ink (2) Writting ink (3) Printing ink (4) Marker pen ink NTS-SAT-18 X S4 13 of 48

24. EÚkuLkku yk ykiãkurøkf ÿkðýlkku økihðkãkh xk ðk {kxu íku{kt fþwt ÿôþ ¼uøkw fhðk{kt ykðu Au? (1) {eúkulkku (2) «kuãkulkkì (3) EÚkuLkkuEf yìrmkz (4) «kuãkulk 25. kþku kexlkwt yýwmkqºk... Au. (1) NaAlF (2) Na 3 AlF 6 (3) Na 2 AlF 3 (4) Na 2 AlF 2 26. Lke[u{ktÚke fþwt zkuçkuhkþlkhlkwt «Þf LkÚke? (1) Li, Na, K (2) Cl, K, Cr (3) Ca, Sr, Ba (4) Cl, Br, I 27. DNA Lkk çku Ëkuhk{ktÚke yuf ËkuhkLkku WÃkÞkuøk fhelku m - RNA íkiþkh ÚkkÞ Au. yk «r ÞkLku... fnu Au. (1) «rík u¾lk (2) ¼k»kktíkhý (3) MÚkkLkktíkhý (4) «ríkmúkkãklk 28. Mkqºkfku»k rð¼kslk{kt ËkuhkLke {ËËÚke økwýmkqºk çkëwlkwt rð¼kslk ÚkELku Ëhuf økwýmkqºklke yäoøkwýmkqºk òuze. swëe ÚkELku rðyø rëþk{kt Äfu kþ Au. yk økwýä{o çkíkkðíke Mkqºkfku»k rð¼kslk{ktlke yðmúkk yku ¾ku. (1) ytíþkðmúkk (2) ÃkqðkoðMÚkk (3) {æþkðmúkk (4) ÃkùkðMÚkk 29. ¼úwýfku»kLkwt rð¼kslk òu Þwø{s íkiþkh ÚkÞkLkk 8 rëðmk ÃkAe ÚkkÞ íkku... çkk fku sl{ðklke þõþíkk ðäkhu nkuþ Au. (1) slkelkeþ árüyu y øk çku Akufheyku (2) MkkÞkr{s òurzþk (3) slkelkeþ árüyu swëk çku Akufhkyku (4) slkelkeþ áâ»xyu swëk yuf Akufhku ylku yuf Akufhe. 30. ±ðlkmãkríklkkt Vq {kt [kh [ Lke h[lkk ytëhúke çknkh fþk {Úke nkuþ Au? (1) ð@ãkºk Vq {rý Ãkw{ktøk òþktøk (2) òþktøk Ãkw{ktøk Vq {rý ð@ãkºk (3) ð@ãkºk Ãkw{ktøk Vq {rý òþktøk (4) òþktøk Vq {rý Ãkw{ktøk ð@ãkºk NTS-SAT-18 X S4 14 of 48

24. To prevent the misuse of the important commercial solvent ethanol is mixed with... (1) Methanol (2) Propanol (3) Ethanoic acid (4) Propane 25. Chemical formula of cryolite is... (1) NaAlF (2) Na 3 AlF 6 (3) Na 2 AlF 3 (4) Na 2 AlF 2 26. Which of the following is not Dobereiner s Traide? (1) Li, Na, K (2) Cl, K, Cr (3) Ca, Sr, Ba 4) Cl, Br, I 27. By using only one of the two strands of DNA, mrna is produced this process is called as... (1) Transcription (2) Translation (3) Translocation (4) Replacement 28. Identify phase in mitosis shown by : centromeres split and thereby sister chromatids of each chromosome seperates and they are pulled apart in opposite direction. (1) Telophase (2) Prophase (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase 29. If the embryonic cells are divided into two groups 8 days after the zygote formation then there is high possiblity of formation of... (1) Genetically different twin girls (2) Siamese twins (3) Genetically different twin boys (4) Genetically different one boy one girl 30. Which is the sequence of four whorls of flower from outside to inside? (1) calyx corolla androceium gynoceium (2) gynoceium androceium corolla calyx (3) calyx androceium corolla gynoceium (4) gynoceium corolla androceium calyx NTS-SAT-18 X S4 15 of 48

31. Ãkrù{ çktøkk {kt MkwtËhçkLk y¼þkhûþ fþk «fkhlkk «kýeyku {kxu ykhrûkík Au? (1) yuf þøkzkðk ku økuzku (2) støk e økkþ (3) ðk½ (4) yurþþke Mkn 32. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fþwt «kýe økh{ kurnðk wt, ËqÄLke økútúke Ähkðíkwt, íku{s íku{lkwt þheh {kúkwt, zkuf, Äz ylku ÃkqtAze suðk ¼køkku Ähkðu Au? (1) ÃkUøðeLk (2) fk[çkku (3) fçkwíkh (4) [k{k[erzþwt 33. ÿkûk{ktúke ðkelk çklkkððk {kxu Úkíkkt ykúkðýlke «Â Þk{kt fþk Mkqû{SðLkku WÃkÞkuøk fhðk{kt ykðu Au? (1) Mkìfhku{kÞrMkMk MkuhuÂÔnMke (2) yìmãkhrs Mk ykuhkþíe (3) uõxkuçkurmk Mk çkúwemk (4) yìmãkhrs Mk LkkÞøkh 34. Lke[u «kurxlk WíÃkkËLkku ylku íku fþk hkuøkkuãkh WÃkÞkuøke Ãkzu Au íkulke òuz ykãkðk{kt ykðu Au. yk òuz{ktúke yþkuøþ òuz yku ¾ku. «kurxlk WíÃkkËLkku hkuøk (1) ELMÞwr Lk - {Äw«{un (2) ErhÚkúkuÃkkìÞurxLk - yurlkr{þk (3) ExhÕÞwrfLk - fìlmkh (ffo hkuøk) (4) #xhvuhkìlk - rn{kurvr Þk 35. Lke[u ykãku fþk ½xfLku eäu {klkðelkwt Þf]ík ylku [uíkkmktmúkklke fkþoûk{íkk ½xkzu Au. íku{s ykþw»þ Ãký ykuaw ÚkkÞ Au? (1) íktçkkfw (2) økwxfk (3) ykõfkunku (4) íkýkð 36. rsõ k MíkhÃkh ykãkr k ÔÞðMÚkkÃkLk {kxu ylku ykãkr k rlkðkhý ÞkusLkkykuLkk Ãkqýoíkk {kxu fkuý sðkçkëkh nkuþ Au? (1) {wïþ{tºke (2) øk]n{tºke (3) rsõ kräfkhe (4) íknmke Ëkh NTS-SAT-18 X S4 16 of 48

31. Sunderban sanctuary of West Bengal is reserved for which animals? (1) Rhino (2) Bison (3) Tiger (4) Asiatic lion 32. From the following which animal is warm blooded, presence of mammary glands and body divided into head, neck, trunk and tail. (1) Penguin (2) Tortoise (3) Pigeon (4) Bat 33. In process of fermentation of production of wine from grapes which micro organism is used? (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Aspergillus oryzae (3) Lactobacillus brevis (4) Aspergillus niger 34. Given below pairs proteins of produced by biotechnology and disease they are used against. Find the odd pair. Proteins Produced Diseases (1) Insulin - Diabetes (2) Erythropoietin - Anemia (3) Interleukin - Cancer (4) Interferon - Hemophilia 35. Which factor from the following decreases efficiency of nervous system, liver as well as lifespan of person. (1) Tobacco (2) Gutkha (3) Alcohol (4) Stress 36. Who is responsible at the district level disaster management and implementation of rehabilitation schemes? (1) Chief Minister (2) Home Minister (3) Collector (4) Tahsildar NTS-SAT-18 X S4 17 of 48

37. Lke[u ykãku ykf]rík{ktlke {qºk Ãkz økútúke yku ¾ku. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 38. fkçkkuorëík ÃkËkÚkkuoLkk ykìâõmkïmklkúke Qòo {u ððklkk «r ÞkLkku ÞkuøÞ { yku ¾ku. (1) fkçkkuorëík ÃkËkÚko ø wfkuí rð½xlk ÃkkÞYrðf yìrmkz yìmkurx - fku - yulíke{ - A uçk[ CO 2 + H 2 O + Qòo (2) fkçkkuourëík ÃkËkÚko ø wfkuí rð½xlk ÃkkÞYrðf yìrmkz uçk[ yìmkurx - fku -yulíke{ - A CO 2 + H 2 O + Qòo (3) fkçkkuorëík ÃkËkÚko ø wfkuí rð½xlk yìmkurx - fku - yulíke{-a ÃkkÞYrðf yìrmkz uçk[ CO 2 + H 2 O + Qòo (4) fkçkkuorëík ÃkËkÚko ø wfkuí rð½xlk yìmkurx - fku - yulíke{ - A uçk[ ÃkkÞYrðf yìrmkz CO 2 + H 2 O + Qòo NTS-SAT-18 X S4 18 of 48

37. Identify the adrenal gland from the following figure (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 38. Identify the correct sequence for process of energy production from carbohydrates. (1) Carbohydrates Glycolysis Pyruvic acid AcetylCoA Krebs cycle CO 2 + H 2 O + energy (2) Carbohydrates Glycolysis Pyruvic acid Krebs cycle AcetylCoA CO 2 + H 2 O + energy (3) Carbohydrates Glycolysis AcetylCoA Pyruvic acid Krebs cycle CO 2 + H 2 O + energy (4) Carbohydrates Glycolysis AcetylCoA Krebs cycle Pyruvic acid CO 2 + H 2 O + energy NTS-SAT-18 X S4 19 of 48

39. Míkt¼kfkh yr¼míkh ÃkuþeLkwt fkþo yku ¾ku. (1) [ku Mk ÃkËkÚkkuoLkwt ðnlk fhðwt (2) yðþðkulkku ½Mkkhku hkufðku (3) Ãkk[f hmkku kððk (4) {qºk{kt hnu k WÃkÞkuøke ÿôþlkwt þku»ký 40. Lke[u ykãku «{kýu þheh h[lkk nkuþ yuðk «kýeykulkku fþk øký{kt Mk{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au? 1 ktçkk, Lk kfkh, fkþk¾tz - ¾tze¼ðLk 2 rºkmíkheþ, rîãkkïo Mk{r{ík þheh, ðkmíkrðf Ãkku ký 3 «[ Lk {kxu ázhku{ yúkðk ÃkhkðkË yúkðk [qmkf suðk yðþðku. (1) MktrÄÃkkË (2) ð Þe (3) økku f]r{ (4) {]ËwfkÞ 41. ykäwrlkf EríknkMk u¾lklkk slkf íkhefu fkuý yku ¾kÞ Au? (1) ðkìõxuyh (2) {kef Vwfku (3) fk o {kfomk (4) hìlku Ëufkíko 42. Lke[u ykãku k {ktúke yþkuøþ òuze yku ¾ku. (1) nw ðhu þwÿkmk - ðtr[íkku Lkku EríknkMk (2) e ÃkwÁ»k íkw Lkk - eðkëe u¾lk (3) fubçkúes rnmxhe ykuv EtrzÞk - ðmkkníkðkëe EríknkMk (4) Ä #zeþlk ðkìh ykìv ELzeÃkuLzLMk - {kfomkðkëe EríknkMk 43. hk»xùeþ rvõ{ Mktøkúnk Þ (LkuþLk rvõ{ ykfkoeí) MktMÚkkLke {wïþ f[uhe... þnuh{kt Au. (1) {wtçke (2) Ãkwýu (3) f f kk (4) rëõne NTS-SAT-18 X S4 20 of 48

39. Identify the function of columnar epithelium (1) Selective transport of substances (2) Prevention of wearing of organs (3) Secretion of digestive juice (4) Reabsorption of useful materials from urine 40. Body structure of different animals is given below. Identify to which phylum the animal belongs 1 Long, cylindrical, metamerically segmented. 2 Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, eucoelomate. 3 They have setae or parapodia or suckers for locomotion. (1) Arathropoda (2) Annelida (3) Aschelminthes (4) Mollusca 41. Who was the founder of modern Historiography? (1) Voltair (2) Michel Foucault (3) Karl Marx (4) Rene Descartes 42. Identify the wrong pair from the pairs given below. (1) Who were the shudras - History of Subaltern (2) Stri - Purush Tulana - Feminist writing (3) Cambridge History of India - Colonial Historiography (4) The Indian war of Independence - Marxist History 43. The Main Office of National Film Archives of India is at... (1) Mumbai (2) Pune (3) Kolkata (4) Delhi NTS-SAT-18 X S4 21 of 48

44. çkksw{kt ykãku k r[ºk{ktlkk {trëh MÚkkÃíÞLkwt rþ¾h fe þi e Lkwt Au? (1) ÿrðz (2) ðumkh (3) Lkkøkh (4) ¼qr{Í 45. ¼khík{kt «Úk{ ytøkúus ðíko{klkãkºk fkuýu þy fþwo? (1) yì ulk Ìkw{ (2) Mkh òìlk {kþo (3) submk ykuøkümk rnfe (4) {kef Vwfku 46. {nkhk»xùlkk ykã rfíkolkfkh... Lku fnuðkþ Au. (1) Mktík kklkuïh (2) Mktík íkwfkhk{ (3) Mktík Lkk{Ëuð (4) Mktík yuflkkúk 47. Ãkqðo {nkhk»xù{kt çklkíke kfzklke Zªøk eykulku þwt fnuðkþ Au? (1) Xfe (2) fk e[trzfk (3) øktøkkðíke (4) [tãkkðíke 48. {nkçk uïh LkSfLkwt r¼ kh økk{ þulkk {kxu «ÏÞkík Au? (1) ðlkmãkrík (2) ÃkwMíkfku (3) rfõ k (4) yk{úv NTS-SAT-18 X S4 22 of 48

44. Identify the style of the temple architecture that has been shown in the above picture? (1) Dravid (2) Vesara (3) Nagara (4) Bhoomija 45. Who started the First English Newspaper in India? (1) Alen Hume (2) Sir John Marshal (3) James Augustus Hickey (4) Michel Foucault 46. Who is known - as the first Keertankar of Maharashtra? (1) Saint Dnyaneshwar (2) Saint Tukaram (3) Saint Namdev (4) Saint Eknath 47. Write the name of the Wooden dolls made in Maharashtra. (1) Thaki (2) Kali Chandika (3) Gangavati (4) Champavati 48. Bhilar - the village near Mahableshwar is famous as the village of... (1) Plants (2) Books (3) Forts (4) Mangoes NTS-SAT-18 X S4 23 of 48

49. ¼khíkLkk «rmkø Mktøkúnk Þ{ktÚke ¾kuxe òuze yku ¾ku. (1) f f kk - #zeþlk BÞwÍeÞ{ (2) rëõne - LkuþLk BÞwÍeÞ{ (3) niëhkçkkë - Mkk khstøk BÞwÍeÞ{ (4) {wtçke - Ä fu efku BÞwÍeÞ{ ykuv xuõmkxkeõmk. 50. EríknkMk{kt fk { «{kýu y¾tz økkuxðýe fhðklke ÃkØrík ¼w ¼hu e Au íkuðwt «ríkãkkëlk fkuýu fþwo? (1) {kef Vwfku (2) Mke{ku - Ë - çkkuônk (3) r ÞkuÃkkuÕz - ðkìlk - hktfu (4) ßÞkuso rðõnu{ uzhef nu{u 51. {wtçkelke AºkÃkrík rþðks {nkhks huõðu xš{lkmk yk E{khík fe MÚkkÃkíÞ þi elkwt Q k{ WËknhý Au? (1) {wâm { (2) Lkkøkh (3) ÿkrðz (4) ELzku - økkìrúkf 52. 6 òlþwykhelkku rëðmk... íkhefu {Lkkððk{kt ykðu Au? (1) {krníke yräfkh (2) Ãkºkfkh (3) {klkðe n (4) MðåAíkk 53. {ush æþklk[tÿlkku sl{rëðmk... hk»xùeþ ezk rëðmk íkhefu WsðkÞ Au (1) 28 ykìõxkuçkh (2) 29 ykìøkmx (3) 10 rzmkuçkh (4) 14 yur«54. {wtçke{kt... Lkuík]íð nux eykuyu ðu ý {kuh[ku fkzâku. (1) «r{ k Ëtzðíku (2) {]ýk økkuhu (3) økkihkëuðe (4) zkì. Vw huý økwnk 55. ¼khík{kt fþk WãkuøkLku MkLkhkEMk ûkuºk íkhefu yku ¾ðk{kt ykðu Au? (1) þý (2) ðknlk (3) rmk{ulx (4) ¾kËe ylku økúk{kuãkuøk 56. 1983 {kt fkulkk Lkuík]íð nux ¼khíku rðïfãk r fux MÃkÄko{kt rðsþ {u ÔÞku? (1) MkwrLk økðkmfh (2) MktËeÃk Ãkkxe (3) MkiÞË rfh{kýe (4) frãk Ëuð NTS-SAT-18 X S4 24 of 48

49. Identify the wrong pair from the famous museums and its location in India. (1) Kolkata - Indian Museum (2) Delhi - National Museum (3) Hyderabad - Salarjang Museum (4) Mumbai - The Calico Museum of Textiles 50. Who said that, the prevailing practice of arranging historical events in a chronological order is not right? (1) Michel foucault (2) Seamaw The Bolva (3) Leopold von Ranke (4) George Wilhelm friendrich Hegel 51. Which style of architecture has been used to build, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus? (1) Muslim (2) Nagara (3) Dravid (4) Indo - Gothic 52. 6 th January is celebrated as... Day. (1) Right to Information (2) Journalist (3) Human rights (4) Cleanliness 53.... is the birthdate of Major Dhyan Chand is celebrated as the National Sports Day in India. (1) 28 October (2) 29 August (3) 10 December (4) 14 April 54. Under the leadership of Socialist leader... women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as Laatne Morcha (1) Pramila Dandavate (2) Mrinal Gore (3) Gaura Devi (4) Dr. Phulrenu Guha 55. Which industry is known as Sunrise Sector of India? (1) Jute industry (2) Automobile industry (3) Cement Industry (4) Khadi and village industry 56. In the year 1983, The Indian cricket team won the World Cup under the captainship of... (1) Sunil Gavaskar (2) Sandip Patil (3) Sayyed Kirmani (4) Kapil Dev NTS-SAT-18 X S4 25 of 48

57. ¼khík{kt kufþkne rðfulÿefhýlkku MkkiÚke {kuxku «ÞíLk...{k çktäkhý MkwÄkhýk{kt ÚkÞku. (1) 71 ylku 72 (2) 72 ylku 73 (3) 73 ylku 74 (4) 74 ylku 75 58. [qtxýeãkt[ - ¼khíkLke MðkÞík MktMÚkkLkwt rlk{koý çktäkhýlke fe f { nux ÚkÞwt? (1) f { - 314 (2) f { - 324 (3) f { - 334 (4) f { - 344 59. ¼khík{kt [qtxýe fr{& hlke rlk{ýqtf fkuý fhu Au? (1) hk»xùãkrík (2) «ÄkLk{tºke (3) kufmk¼klkk MÃkefh (4) WÃkhk»xÙÃkrík 60. ykãku k {ktúke «Ëuþ ylku ykrëðkmke [ ð {kxulke yþkuøþ òuze yku ¾ku. (1) Akuxk LkkøkÃkwh - hk{kuþe (2) ykurzþk - økkuz (3) {nkhk»xù - fku e (4) rçknkh - {wtzk 61. ¼khíkeÞ kufþkne Mkk{uLkk òu¾{ {ktúke rðmktøkík ½xf yku ¾ku. (1) ËnuþíkðkË (2) ¼úük[kh (3) Lkûk ðkë (4) ÃkÞkoðhýLkku nùkmk 62. kufþknelkwt ÓËÞ fkulku fnuðkþ Au? (1) «kiz {íkkräfkh (2) Mk kklkwt rðfulÿefhý (3) ykhrûkík MÚkkLkkuLkku rlkþ{ (4) LÞkÞk ÞLkku rlkýoþ NTS-SAT-18 X S4 26 of 48

57. Several attempts were made towards democratic decentralisation. One of these attempts was the... amendment to Indian constitution. (1) 71 and 72 (2) 72 and 73 (3) 73 and 74 (4) 74 and 75 58. Identify the article of the Indian Constitution, which has established Election Commission as autonomous body? (1) Art. - 314 (2) Art. - 324 (3) Art. - 334 (4) Art. - 344 59. Who appoints the Election Commissioner in India? (1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Speaker of Loksabha (4) Vice President 60. Which one of the following is incorrect / wrong pair in concern with the region & the movement raised in it? (1) Chota Nagpur - Ramoshi (2) Orissa - Gond (3) Maharashtra - Koli (4) Bihar - Munda 61. Which one of the following is irrelevant to the challenges faced by the Indian Democracy? (1) Terrorism (2) Corruption (3) Naxlism (4) Environmental Degradation 62. The essence of Democracy is... (1) Universal Adult Franchise. (2) Decentralisation of Power. (3) Policy of reservation of seats. (4) Judicial decisions. NTS-SAT-18 X S4 27 of 48

63. BRICS yktíkhhk»xùeþ MktøkXLk{kt fþku Ëuþ Mkn¼køke LkÚke? (1) ¼khík (2) #ø ulz (3) [elk (4) hrþþk 64. 2005 {kt ¼khík ylku y{urhfk ðå[u Lkkøkrhf yýwmknfkh fhkh Lku ¼khíkLkk íkífk elk «ÄkLk{tºke...yLku y{urhfklkk «{w¾ ßÞkuso çkwþu {klþíkk ykãke. (1) hksð økktäe (2) Ãke.ðe. Lkh Mknhkð (3) zkì. {Lk{kunLk Mkøk (4) yx rçknkhe ðksãkuþe 65. ¼khíkLke fe rëþk{kt ËrhÞk rflkkhku LkÚke? (1) Ãkqðo (2) Ãkrù{ (3) Ërûký (4) W kh 66. Mk{wÿ{kt çktäçkumkíkku Lk nkuþ íku ½xf/þçË yku ¾ku (1) rn{ (2) fhkt (3) çkhv (4) ÃksoLÞ 67. ¼khíkLkwt MÚkq hk»xùeþ WíÃkkËLk (GNP) çkúkíe fhíkkt ðäkhu nkuðk Aíkkt ¼khíkLke ÔÞÂõík ËeX ykðf ykuae Au fkhý fu... (1) ¼khíkLke kufmktïþk ðäw Au. (2) ¼khíkLke kufmktïþk ykuae Au. (3) çkúkíe Lke kufmktïþk ðäw Au. (4) ¼khík ylku çkúkrí Lke kufmktïþk Mkh¾e Au. 68. ±ðknlkôþðnkhlkwt {n ð - yþkuøþ rðäklk fþwt Au? (1) ÔÞkÃkkh rðmíkkh (2) ÍzÃke ykiãkurøkfhý (3) ÃkÞoxLkLkku rðfkmk (4) hkusøkkhlke íkfku ykuae WÃk çä 69. ¼khíkLkk yufë{ AuðxLkk Ãkqðo ylku Ãkrù{ Auzk ÃkhLkk hu¾ktþð]íkku{kt fux e r{rlkxkulkku Mk{Þ Vhf nkuþ Au? (1) 110 (2) 120 (3) 130 (4) 140 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 28 of 48

63. Identify the Nation which is not a Member of BRICS - an International Orgranization? (1) India (2) England (3) China (4) Russia 64. In 2005 The Indian. U.S. Civil Nuclear Agreement was signed by... the Prime Minister of India and George W. Bush - the American President (1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) P. V. Narsimha Rao (3) Dr. Manmohan Singh (4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 65. India has no coastline along the... direction (1) East (2) West (3) South (4) North 66. Identify the oddman out (1) Snow (2) hailstone (3) Ice (4) rainfall 67. Though India has a higher national income as compared to Brazil, the per capita income of India is lower than Brazil because... (1) The Population of India is more. (2) The Population of India is less. (3) The Population of Brazil is more. (4) The Population of Brazil and India is equal. 68. Identify the wrong statement, regarding Importance of Population... (1) Expansion of trade. (2) Rapid Industrialization (3) Tourism Development. (4) Lack of employment opportunities. 69. India too has a large longitudinal extent. The difference between the two extreme most points is... (1) 110 (2) 120 (3) 130 (4) 140 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 29 of 48

70. ykãku k{ktúke yþkuøþ ½xf yku ¾ku. (1) øktøkk (2) Mkkçkh{íke (3) MkÄq (4) Þ{wLkk 71. rn{k ÞLkk Wå[«Ëuþ{kt fþku ðmíke «fkh òuðk { u Au? (1) fulxùelk (2) hu¾kf]rík (3) Aqxe AðkE (4) íkkhkf]rík 72 Lke[u ykãku k {ktúke MktËuþÔÞðnkhLkk MkkÄLkku Ãkife fþku ½xf LkÚke? (1) fkubãþwxh (Mktøkýf) (2) {kuçkke (3) ELxhLkux (4) rðïfkuþ 73. ÞkuøÞ òuzeyku Ähkðíkku ÃkÞkoÞ yku ¾ku. hkßþ (y) {nkhk»xù (çk) hksmúkklk (f) Wíkhk¾tz (z) íkkr{ Lkkzw ÃkÞoxLkMÚk (I) WËøkT{tz (II) {Mkwhe (III) ystxk (IV) sumk {uh (1) y - III, çk - IV, f - II, z- I (2) y - IV, çk - III, f - I, z - II (3) y - II, çk - I, f - III, z - IV (4) y- I, çk - II, f - IV, z - III NTS-SAT-18 X S4 30 of 48

70. Find out the odd man out from given options. (1) Ganga (2) Sabarmati (3) Sindhu (4) Yamuna 71. Which type of settlement has been found at the uneven topography of Himalaya? (1) Nucleated (2) Linear (3) Dispersed (4) Star - Shaped 72. Which one is not the mean of Communication? (1) Computer (2) Mobiles (3) Internet (4) Encyclopeadia. 73. Identify the correct option from pairs given below State (A) Maharashtra (B) Rajasthan (C) Uttarakhand (D) Tamilnadu Travel Place (I) Udagmandalam (II) Masoori (III) Aajintha (IV) Jaisalmer (1) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I (2) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II (3) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV (4) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III NTS-SAT-18 X S4 31 of 48

74. Lke[u ykãku k{ktúke fþku Ëuþ çkúkíe MkkÚku Mke{k Ähkðíkku LkÚke? (1) yksuolxelkk (2) BÞkLk{kh (3) ÃkuY (4) U[røkÞkLkk 75. ÞkuøÞ òuze Ähkðíkku ÃkÞkoÞ yku ¾ku. y (A) Mk{þeíkku»ý ½krMkÞku «Ëuþ (B) fktxk e ðlmkãkrík ylku Íkt¾hk (C) W»ý ½krMkÞku «Ëuþ (D) rð»kwðð]íkeþ ðlkku çk (I) MkuðuLkk (II) yu{uíkulk Lkku ¾eý«Ëuþ (III) frxtøkk (VI) ÃktÃkkÍ (1) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III (2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I (3) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II 76. çkksw{kt ykãku k Lkfþk{kt A yûkhlke søþkyu çkúkrí Lke fe LkËe ykðu e Au? (1) Ãkìhkøðu (2) ÃkkhkrLkçkk (3) WÁøðu (4) ÃkwÁMk 77. yu{uíkulk ylku xkufurxlmk LkËeLkk {w¾«ëuþ {kt... Lkk{Lkku rðþk rflkkhklkku çkux çklþku Au. (1) Mkkðku klmke»kfku (2) {khkòut (3) {kfkuomk (4) rhþku NTS-SAT-18 X S4 32 of 48

74. Which country do not share their border with Brazil? (1) Argentina (2) Myanmar (3) Peru (4) French Guiana 75. Identify the correct options of pairs given below. A Group (A) Temperate Grasslands (B) Thorny Shrubs (C) Tropical Grasslands (D) Equatorial forests B Group (I) Savanna (II) Amazon River Basin (III) Coatinga (VI) Pampas (1) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III (2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I (3) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II 76. Which river has been shown with letter A in the given outline map of Brazil? (1) Paraguay (2) Paraniba (3) Urugway (4) Purus 77.... is a large coastal island located between the mouths of River Amazon and River Tocantins. (1) Sao Francisco (2) Marajo (3) Marcos (4) Rio NTS-SAT-18 X S4 33 of 48

78. rlkblkr r¾ík çkkçkíkku {kxu ÞkuøÞ òuzfk Lkku ÃkÞkoÞ yku ¾ku. Míkt¼ A Míkt¼ B Míkt¼ C «Ëuþ MkhkMkhe ð»kko ðlklkku «fkh (A) røkþklkk Wå[«Ëuþ (I) 1500 r{{e. (P) Mk{þeíkku»ýðLk (B) yu{uíkulklkku ¾eý«Ëuþ (II) 600 r{{e. (Q) ÃkkLk¾hLkk ðlk (C) Ãkuhkøðu-ÃkkhkLkk òuä ¾eý«Ëuþ (III) 1600 r{{e. (R) W»ýfrxçktÄ ðlk (D) çkúkíe Lkku Wå[«Ëuþ (IV) 2000 r{{e. (S) rð»kwðð]íkeþ ðlk (1) A - III - R, B - IV S, C - I - Q, D - II - P (2) A - IV - S, B - III - R, C - II - P, D - I - Q (3) A - I - P, B - II - Q, C - III - R, D - IV - S (4) A - II - Q, B - I - P, C - IV - S, D - III - R 79. Lke[u ykãku k{ktúke fþku ÃkÞkoÞ kufmktïþklke ½Lkíkk ðäw nkuðk {kxu WÃkÞkuøke Au. (1) V ÿwãk s{elk - {uëklke «Ëuþ - ÃkkýeLke WÃk çäíkk (2) V ÿwãk s{elk - f]r»klkku rðfkmk - Mkwfku hý«ëuþ (3) {uëklke «Ëuþ - ykiãkurøkf rðfkmk - zwtøkhk «Ëuþ (4) zwtøkhk «Ëuþ - øke[ støk ku - V ÿwãk s{elk 80. {u½k Þ ÂMÚkík {kumkelkhk{ MkðkorÄf ð]rü Ähkðíkwt MÚk Lke[u{ktÚke fþk SÕ k{kt Au? (1) økkhku (2) siríkþk (3) ¾kMke (4) rëþãkwh 81. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fþk çku hur¾þ Mk{efhýLke òuzelkku yuf{uð Wfu x = 2 ylku y = 3 Au. (1) x y 1; 2x3y 5 (2) 2x 5y 11; 4x10y 22 (3) 2x y1;3x2y 0 (4) x 4y140;5x y130 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 34 of 48

78. Identify the correct option of pairs given below Group A Group B Group C Region Average Rain fall Type of Forest (A) Giana Highlands (I) 1500 mm (P) Temperate Grasslands (B) Amazon Basin (II) 600 mm (Q) Deciduous Forests (C) Paraguay-Parana Basin (III) 1600 mm (R) Tropical Forests (D) Brazilian Highland (IV) 2000 mm (S) Equatorial Forests (1) A - III - R, B - IV S, C - I - Q, D - II - P (2) A - IV - S, B - III - R, C - II - P, D - I - Q (3) A - I - P, B - II - Q, C - III - R, D - IV - S (4) A - II - Q, B - I - P, C - IV - S, D - III - R 79. Choose the correct option of favaurable factors for highest population density... (1) fertile land - plain lands - availability of water (2) fertile land - agricultural development - dry desert area (3) plain lands - development of industry - hilly regions (4) hilly regions - dense forest area - fertile land. 80. In which district of Meghalaya - the highest rainfall place Mawsynram is situated? (1) Garo (2) Jaitiya (3) Khasi (4) Dispur 81. Which of the following two linear equations have only one unique solution x = 2 and y = 3 (1) x y 1; 2x3y 5 (2) 2x 5y 11; 4x10y 22 (3) 2x y1;3x2y 0 (4) x 4y140;5x y130 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 35 of 48

82. òu 3 ylku 5 2 nkuþ íkku ylku {q nkuþ íkuðwt ðøkomk{efhý fþwt? (1) 2 2x 5x 60 (2) 2 2x 6x50 (3) 2 2x 6x 50 (4) 2 2x 6x50 83. eãk ð»ko AkuzeLku fkueãký ð»ko{kt 53 økwáðkh ykððklke Mkt¼kðLkk fux e Au? (1) 2 7 (2) 3 7 (3) 1 7 (4) 4 7 84. 15 Úke 500 ðå[ulke «kf]ríkf MktÏÞkLku 6 ðzu ¼køkíkkt þu»k 5 ðäu íkuðe fw MktÏÞk fux e? (1) 80 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 83 85. 5 7 3 2 3 3 4 2 yk rlkùþflke f{ík {kxu W khlkku ÞkuøÞ ÃkÞkoÞ þkuäku. (y) 1 8 (çk) 1 8 (f) 1 2 3 1 (z) 3 512 (1) y ylku f (2) çk, f ylku z (3) y, çk ylku f (4) y, f ylku z NTS-SAT-18 X S4 36 of 48

5 82. If 3 and then find the quadratic equation whose roots are and? 2 (1) 2 2x 5x 60 (2) 2 2x 6x50 (3) 2 2x 6x 50 (4) 2 2x 6x50 83. What is the probability of having 53 Thursdays in ordinary year (except leap year)? (1) 2 7 (2) 3 7 (3) 1 7 (4) 4 7 84. How many natural numbers between 15 to 500 when divided by 6 leave remainder 5? (1) 80 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 83 85. 5 7 3 2 3 3 4 2 Choose correct alternative for the value of determinat. (A) 1 8 (B) 1 8 (C) 1 2 3 1 (D) 3 512 (1) A and C (2) B, C and D (3) A, B and C (4) A, C and D NTS-SAT-18 X S4 37 of 48

86. 2 3 2 0 ax bx c yk ðøko Mk{efhýLkk {q Lkku økwýku kh 2 : 3 Au íkku Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fþw rðäklk Mkk[wt Au? (1) 8ac 25b (2) 2 8ac 9b (3) 2 8b 9ac (4) 2 8b 25ac 87. yuf ytføkrýíkeþ uze{kt n ÃkËku Au (n rð»k{) ylku uzelkwt {æþ ÃkË m nkuþ íkku íku uze {kxu Sn = fux k? (1) mn 2 (2) mn (3) 2mn (4) 2 mn 88. òu N 70, h 10, c. f. 22, f 10, L 30 íkku yk {krníkelkk ykäkhu {æþflke f{ík fux e? (1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 43 (4) 34 89. çku ÃkkMkk yuf MkkÚku VUfíkk Ãk]»X¼køk ÃkhLkkt ytfkulkku Mkhðk ku {q MktÏÞk nkuðklke Mkt¼kðLkk fux e? (1) 5 36 (2) 5 12 (3) 5 18 (4) 11 36 90. rîytfe MktÏÞkLkk ytfkulkk Mkhðk klku 8 ðzu økwýe ylku íku{ktúke 5 çkkë fhe { íke MktÏÞk íku MktÏÞkLkk ytfkulke çkkëçkkfelku 16 ðzu økwýe íku{k 3 W{uhíkkt íkiþkh ÚkkÞ Au íkku íku MktÏÞk fe? (1) 83 (2) 84 (3) 85 (4) 78 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 38 of 48

86. If roots of the quadratic equation 2 3ax 2bx c 0 are in the ratio 2 : 3 then which of the following statement is true? (1) 8ac 25b (2) 2 8ac 9b (3) 2 8b 9ac (4) 2 8b 25ac 87. In Arithmetic Progression there are n terms (n is odd) and middle term is m then what is Sn =? (1) mn 2 (2) mn (3) 2mn (4) 2 mn 88. If N 70, h 10, c. f. 22, f 10, L 30 then using this information find median? (1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 43 (4) 34 89. Two dice are rolled simultaneously. what is the probability of getting sum of the digits on the upper face as a prime number? (1) 5 36 (2) 5 12 (3) 5 18 (4) 11 36 90. The number formed when 5 is subtracted after multiplying by 8 to the sum of digits of a two digit number is equal to the number formed when 3 is added after multiplying by 16 to the difference of digits in a number. what is the number? (1) 83 (2) 84 (3) 85 (4) 78 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 39 of 48

91. ykf]rík{kt ABC fkxfkuý rºkfkuý Au çkëw D yu fýo AC Lkwt {æþ çkëw Au. hu¾k DE çkksw BC ylku 0 mabd 70 Au íkku mcdemdbe fux k? (1) 70 0 (2) 20 0 (3) 50 0 (4) 30 0 92. ABC {kt ykãku e {krníke ÃkhÚke ABC Lke Ãkrhr{íke {kxu Lke[u ykãku k fþk sðkçk çkhkçkh Au? (A) 18 2 6 6 (B) 6 312 2 (C) 18 6 3 2 (D) 18 6 6 2 (1) A ylku B (2) A ylku C (3) C ylku D (4) Võík D NTS-SAT-18 X S4 40 of 48

91. In the adjoining figure ABC is a right angled triangle. Point D is the midpoint of hypotenuse 0 AC. Segment DE side BC. mabd 70 then find mcdemdbe? (1) 70 0 (2) 20 0 (3) 50 0 (4) 30 0 92. Observe the adjoing figure. From the given information the perimeter of the triangle is given below. Choose the correct alternative. (A) 18 2 6 6 (B) 6 312 2 (C) 18 6 3 2 (D) 18 6 6 2 (1) A and B (2) A and C (3) C and D (4) only D NTS-SAT-18 X S4 41 of 48

93. Lke[u ykãku k rðäklkkulkku rð[kh fhe W khlkku ÞkuøÞ ÃkÞkoÞ þkuäku. (y) yuf s ðíkwo Lkku Ãkrh½ ylku ÔÞkMkLkku økwýku kh (ÃkkÞ) yk økúef yûkh ðzu ËþkoðkÞ Au. (çk) yk økwýku kh y¾tz ykðíkeo nkuðkúke íkulke [ku Mk f{ík 22 7 22 7 Au. ÃkÞkoÞ (1) rðäklk y ylku çk ¾kuxk (2) rðäklk y ylku çk Mkk[kt (3) rð½klk y Mkk[wt Ãký çk ¾kuxwt (4) rðäklk y ¾kuxwt Ãký çk Mkk[wt 94. Lke[u fux kf rðäklkku ykãku k Au íku ÃkhÚke ÞkuøÞ ÃkÞkoÞ þkuäku. (A) X - yûklku Mk{ktíkh hu¾klkku Zk 2 1 x y x y 2 1 yk Mkqºk «{kýu þkuäkþ. (B) Y - yûklku Mk{ktíkh hu¾klkku Zk 1 nkuþ Au. (C) hu¾kyu X - yûklke ÄLk rëþk MkkÚku çklkkðu k ¾qýkLkku cotangent økwýku kh yux u íku hu¾klkku Zk nkuþ Au. (D) X - yûk MkkÚku ½wfkuý çklkkðlkkh hu¾klkku Zk þqlþ fhíkkt LkkLkku Ãký økwyfkuý çklkkðlkkh hu¾klkku Zk þqlþ fhíkkt {kuxku nkuþ Au. (1) rðäklk A ylku B Mkk[kt (2) rðäklk C ylku D Mkk[kt (3) Võík rðäklk C ¾kuxwt Au. (4) Mkðo rðäklk ¾kuxkt Au. 95. ykf]rík{kt rfhý BD yu ABC Lkk ¾qýk B Lkku Ëw¼ksf Au. hu¾k ED çkksw BC ylku 0 maed 40 ylku 0 mbdc 110 nkuþ íkku EDB ylku DCB Lkk ylkw {u {kãk fþk nþu? (1) 20 0 ylku 50 0 (2) 50 0 ylku 20 0 (3) 40 0 ylku 50 0 (4) 40 0 ylku 70 0 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 42 of 48

93. Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternative. (A) The ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter is denoted by the Greek letter. (B) is non - terminating, recurring decimal fraction and its exact value is 22 7 22 7. Alternatives : (1) Statements A and B false (2) Statement A and B correct (3) Statement A correct but B false. (4) Statement A false but B correct 94. Read the following statement carefully and choose the correct alternative. (A) The slope of the line parallel to X - axis can be derived by the formula x y x y 2 1 2 1. (B) The slope of the line parallel to Y - axis is 1 (C) The cotangent ratio of an angle made by the line with the positive direction of X - axis is called the slope of that line. (D) The slope of the line which makes acute angle with X - axis is less than zero and the slop of the line making obtuse angle with X - axis is greater than zero. Alternative : (1) Statement A and B correct (2) Statement C and D correct (3) only statement C is wrong (4) All statements are wrong 95. In the adjoing figure ray BD bisects ABC of ABC seg ED side BC 0 maed 40 and 0 mbdc 110 then find the measurments of EDB and DCB respectively. Choose the correct alternative from the following. (1) 20 0 and 50 0 (2) 50 0 and 20 0 (3) 40 0 and 50 0 (4) 40 0 and 70 0 NTS-SAT-18 X S4 43 of 48

96. rºkfkuý PQR {kt 0 0 mr 90, mp 30 ylku PQ 13 ykãku k Au. ykãku e {krníke ÃkhÚke 0 0 ec Lke f{ík fux e ykðþu. cos 60 sec 60 (1) 2 1 3 3 (2) 13 39 2 2 (3) 39 13 2 2 (4) 1 2 1 3 97. fkxfkuý rºkfkuý ABC {kt 0 mb 90, ABC yk u¾ ÃkuÃkhLkk yk u¾{kt Ãknu k ylku çkeò [hý{kt ykðu ku Au. çkëw A ylku C Lkk rlkëuoþf ylkw {u (2, 5) ylku ( 2, 3) nkuþ íkku çkëw B Lkk rlkëuoþfkulke Mkt¼rðík òuzeyku Lke[uLkk ÃkÞkoÞ{ktÚke þkuäku. (1) ( 2, 5) yúkðk (2, 3) (2) (5, 2) yúkðk (3, 2) (3) ( 2, 2) yúkðk (5, 3) (4) (2, 2) yúkðk (5, 3) 98. Lke[u ykãku k çkäk økwýä{o ÃkhÚke ÞkuøÞ ykf]rík yku ¾ku. (A) íkulkk çktlku rðfýo yufyãk nkuþ Au. (B) íkulku tçk[kuhmk fnu Au. (C) íkulke Ãkrhr{íke tçkke yúkðk Ãknku kelkk [kh økýe nkuþ Au. (D) íku Mk{¼ws [íkw»fkuý nkuþ Au. (1) Mk{¼ws [íkw»fkuý (2) tçk[kuhmk (3) Mk{ tçk [íkw»fkuý (4) [kuhmk NTS-SAT-18 X S4 44 of 48

96. In PQR 0 0 mr 90, mp 30 PQ 13. From the given information find the value of 0 0 cos ec 60 sec 60? (1) 2 1 3 3 (2) 13 39 2 2 (3) 39 13 2 2 (4) 1 2 1 3 97. In right angled triangle ABC 0 mb 90 ABC is in the first and second quadrant on the graph paper. The co-ordinater of the points A and C are (2, 5) and ( 2, 3) respectively. Find the possible pairs of co-ordinates of point B from the following alternatives. (1) ( 2, 5) or (2, 3) (2) (5, 2) or (3, 2) (3) ( 2, 2) or (5, 3) (4) (2, 2) or (5, 3) 98. Choose the correct figure that has all the following properties. (A) Both the diagonals are congraent (B) It is called as rectangle (C) The perimeter of the figure is four times its length or breadth (D) It is a rhombus (1) Rhombus (2) Rectangle (3) Trapezium (4) Square NTS-SAT-18 X S4 45 of 48

99. ykf]rík{kt X, Y, Z fulÿ çkëw nkuþ íkuðk yäoðíkwo ku çkíkkôþkt Au çkëw X, Y, Z Mk{hu¾ Au. (X - Y - Z); AX = 2.5, BY = 6.5 ylku CZ = 8.5 ylku AP + QC = 16; QC + CR = 27 ylku CR + AP = 19 nkuþ íkku AP + PB + BQ + QC + CR + RD = fux k? (1) 37 (2) 41 (3) 53 (4) 47 100. ykf]rík{kt PQRS [ eþ [íkw»fkuý çkíkkôþku Au. òu AkÞktrfík ¼køkLkwt ûkuºkv 72 7 fux e? nkuþ íkku ðíkwo Lke rºkßþk (1) 7 yuf{ (2) 4 yuf{ (3) 3 yuf{ (4) 2 yuf{ NTS-SAT-18 X S4 46 of 48

99. In the figure. semi-circles are drawn whose centre are X, Y, Z respectively. Points (X, Y, Z); are collinear points (X Y Z) AX = 2.5, BY = 6.5, CZ = 8.5 and AP + QC = 16; QC + CR = 27 and CR + AP = 19 then find the value of AP + PB + BQ + QC + CR + RD =? (1) 37 (2) 41 (3) 53 (4) 47 100. In the figure PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral. If the area of the shaded part is 72 7 then find the radius of the circle. sq. units (1) 7 units (2) 4 units (3) 3 units (4) 2 units NTS-SAT-18 X S4 47 of 48

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